Setting x=1x=1x=1 in yf(x)=f(xf(y))yf(x)=f(xf(y))yf(x)=f(xf(y)) and using f(1)=1f(1)=1f(1)=1 gives y=f(f(y))y=f(f(y))y=f(f(y)) for every y>0y>0y>0, so fff is an involution.