Problem 1
Let and be real numbers. Prove that if is any permutation of , then .
Step 5 of 5: Conclude the original inequality
Detailed analysis
Step 3 shows for the arbitrary permutation we started with, which by Step 1 is exactly equivalent to . Since was an arbitrary permutation of , the inequality holds for every permutation, completing the proof. Equality holds throughout exactly when every inversion-fixing swap changed nothing, i.e. when already pairs equal values the same way as does.