MathLabs

Problem 6

Let f:Z>0→Z>0f:\mathbb{Z}_{>0}\to\mathbb{Z}_{>0}. Prove that if f(n+1)>f(f(n))f(n+1)>f(f(n)) for every positive integer nn, then f(n)=nf(n)=n for every positive integer nn.
Step 1 of 5: Establish the first tail minimum
In plain words

The inequality prevents every later term from attaining the minimum.

f(m)>f(f(m−1))(m>1)f(m)>f(f(m-1))\quad(m>1)
Detailed analysis

For m>1m>1, apply the hypothesis at m−1m-1. Then f(m)f(m) is strictly greater than another value of the sequence, so it cannot be the minimum of the whole set. Positive integers are well ordered; therefore the unique minimum is f(1)f(1).