MathLabs

Problem 6

Let f:Z>0→Z>0f:\mathbb{Z}_{>0}\to\mathbb{Z}_{>0}. Prove that if f(n+1)>f(f(n))f(n+1)>f(f(n)) for every positive integer nn, then f(n)=nf(n)=n for every positive integer nn.
Step 2 of 5: Induct on tail minima
In plain words

Repeat the first-tail argument after removing the established initial segment.

Sn:f(n)<f(m) for every m>nS_n: f(n)<f(m)\text{ for every }m>n
Detailed analysis

Assume SnS_n and all previously established tail-minimum statements. For m>n+1m>n+1, f(m−1)>f(n)f(m-1)>f(n) by SnS_n. Also, the earlier statements give f(n)>f(n−1)>⋯>f(1)≥1f(n)>f(n-1)>\cdots>f(1)\ge1, so f(n)≥nf(n)\ge n and therefore f(m−1)≥n+1f(m-1)\ge n+1. Thus f(m−1)f(m-1) is an index in the tail starting at n+1n+1. The hypothesis gives f(m)>f(f(m−1))f(m)>f(f(m-1)), so f(m)f(m) is not the minimum in that tail. Its minimum exists, and hence it must be the unique value f(n+1)f(n+1), proving Sn+1S_{n+1}.