MathLabs

Problem 4

(a) For which integers n>2n>2 does there exist a set of nn consecutive positive integers such that the largest number in the set divides the least common multiple of the remaining n−1n-1 numbers? (b) For which integers n>2n>2 is there exactly one such set?
Step 1 of 6: Bound the set size by the largest prime power in kk
In plain words

The 'hardest' prime-power factor of kk dictates how many consecutive numbers you need before another multiple of that same prime power shows up.

k=∏ipiei  ⟹  need n>max⁡ipieik=\prod_i p_i^{e_i} \implies \text{need } n > \max_i p_i^{e_i}
Detailed analysis

If kk (the largest number) is divisible by a prime power pieip_i^{e_i}, then kk divides the lcm of the other numbers only if that lcm is also divisible by pieip_i^{e_i}; the closest multiple of pieip_i^{e_i} below kk is k−pieik-p_i^{e_i}, so the set must reach down at least that far, i.e. it must have at least pieip_i^{e_i} elements. Taking the maximum over all prime powers dividing kk gives the stated bound.