MathLabs

Problem 4

(a) For which integers n>2n>2 does there exist a set of nn consecutive positive integers such that the largest number in the set divides the least common multiple of the remaining n−1n-1 numbers? (b) For which integers n>2n>2 is there exactly one such set?
Step 3 of 6: First construction for n>3n>3
n>3:k=(n−1)(n−2)=lcm(n−1,n−2) worksn>3: \quad k=(n-1)(n-2)=\mathrm{lcm}(n-1,n-2) \text{ works}
Detailed analysis

Take the largest element to be k=(n−1)(n−2)k=(n-1)(n-2), the product (equivalently lcm, since consecutive integers are coprime) of the two numbers just below it. Every prime power dividing kk divides n−1n-1 or n−2n-2, both less than nn, so the bound from Step 1 is satisfied and the set of nn consecutive integers ending at kk works.