MathLabs

Problem 5

Let a1,a2,…a_1,a_2,\ldots be an infinite sequence of positive integers. Suppose there is an integer N>1N>1 such that, for every n≥Nn\ge N, the number a1a2+a2a3+⋯+an−1an+ana1\frac{a_1}{a_2}+\frac{a_2}{a_3}+\cdots+\frac{a_{n-1}}{a_n}+\frac{a_n}{a_1} is an integer. Prove that there is a positive integer MM such that am=am+1a_m=a_{m+1} for all m≥Mm\ge M.
Step 5 of 8: If it never reaches cc, it ascends
vp(an)<c ∀n>N⟹vp(an+1)≥vp(an)v_p(a_n)<c\ \forall n>N\Longrightarrow v_p(a_{n+1})\ge v_p(a_n)
Detailed analysis

In the remaining case, x=vp(an)<cx=v_p(a_n)<c and y=vp(an+1)<cy=v_p(a_{n+1})<c. The first two terms of TnT_n have valuations y−cy-c and x−cx-c, both negative. For their sum with the third term to be integral, the minimum valuation must occur twice. Equality of the first two gives x=yx=y; equality of the first and third gives 2y=x+c2y=x+c, hence y>xy>x; equality of the second and third would give y=cy=c, impossible. Thus y≥xy\ge x, and the valuations are bounded above by cc, so they stabilize.