MathLabs

Problem 3

Let N\mathbb{N} denote the set of positive integers. A function f:N→Nf:\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N} is said to be bonza if f(a)f(a) divides ba−f(b)f(a)b^a-f(b)^{f(a)} for all positive integers aa and bb. Determine the smallest real constant cc such that f(n)≤cnf(n)\le cn for all bonza functions ff and all positive integers nn.
Step 2 of 7: Only finitely many primes q can have f(q) > 1
f(q)>1 ⟹ q∣n−f(n) for all n ⟹ unless f=id, only finitely many primes q have f(q)>1f(q)>1\ \Longrightarrow\ q\mid n-f(n)\ \text{for all }n\ \Longrightarrow\ \text{unless }f=\mathrm{id},\ \text{only finitely many primes }q\ \text{have }f(q)>1
Detailed analysis

By the previous step f(q)∣qqf(q)\mid q^q, so if f(q)>1f(q)>1 then f(q)f(q) is a power of qq. Then P(q,n)P(q,n) gives q∣f(q)∣nq−f(n)f(q)q\mid f(q)\mid n^q-f(n)^{f(q)}; by Fermat's little theorem nq≡n(modq)n^q\equiv n\pmod q, and iterating Fermat shows f(n)f(q)≡f(n)(modq)f(n)^{f(q)}\equiv f(n)\pmod q (as f(q)f(q) is a power of qq), so q∣n−f(n)q\mid n-f(n) for every nn. If this held for infinitely many primes qq, then n−f(n)n-f(n) would be divisible by arbitrarily large primes for every nn, forcing f(n)=nf(n)=n for all nn, i.e. f=idf=\mathrm{id}. So unless f=idf=\mathrm{id}, only finitely many primes qq satisfy f(q)>1f(q)>1.