Ostrowski's theorem (1916)
Statement
Every nontrivial absolute value on is equivalent either to the usual absolute value , or to for exactly one prime .
Why is it true?
This says the 'places' of — the essentially different ways to measure size and complete the field — are exactly the classical primes together with one extra 'infinite prime' standing for the usual absolute value. Nothing distinguishes structurally from any ; it just happens to be the one Archimedean place. This single fact is the seed of the adeles and the entire local-global philosophy of modern number theory: to understand , study it simultaneously at every place .
Proof sketch
Sketch. Let be a nontrivial absolute value on . Case 1 (non-Archimedean): if for every integer , the set is a prime ideal of (it is closed under addition by the ultrametric inequality, which any absolute value with on automatically satisfies, and under multiplication by primality), hence for a unique prime ; comparing to and using multiplicativity shows is equivalent to . Case 2 (Archimedean): if for some integer , write any integer in base and use the triangle inequality together with to bound above and below by powers of itself, forcing for a constant independent of ; this makes equivalent to .
Topics that use this theorem
Step-by-step proofs
No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.
References
- Neal Koblitz (1984). p-adic Numbers, p-adic Analysis, and Zeta-Functions · DOI:10.1007/978-1-4612-1112-9
- Peter Scholze (2012). Perfectoid spaces · arXiv:1111.4914