Let H be a Hilbert space and φ a bounded (continuous) linear functional on H. Then there is a unique y∈H such that φ(x)=⟨x,y⟩ for every x∈H, and moreover ∥φ∥=∥y∥.
Why is it true?
It says every way of assigning a number to each vector linearly and continuously is secretly just "taking the inner product with some fixed vector" — abstract functionals are no more general than the most concrete ones you already know.
Proof sketch
If φ=0, take y=0 and we are done. Otherwise let N=kerφ={x∈H:φ(x)=0}; since φ is continuous and linear, N is a closed proper subspace of H. Because H is a Hilbert space, the projection theorem gives an orthogonal decomposition H=N⊕N⊥, and since N is a proper subspace, N⊥ contains some z=0.
For any x∈H, consider the vector u=φ(x)z−φ(z)x. Applying φ gives φ(u)=φ(x)φ(z)−φ(z)φ(x)=0, so u∈N. Since z∈N⊥, we get ⟨u,z⟩=0, i.e. φ(x)⟨z,z⟩−φ(z)⟨x,z⟩=0. Solving for φ(x) gives φ(x)=∥z∥2φ(z)⟨x,z⟩=⟨x,∥z∥2φ(z)z⟩, so y=∥z∥2φ(z)z represents φ.
For uniqueness, if ⟨x,y1⟩=⟨x,y2⟩ for all x, take x=y1−y2 to get ∥y1−y2∥2=0, so y1=y2. For the norm identity, Cauchy–Schwarz gives ∣φ(x)∣=∣⟨x,y⟩∣≤∥y∥∥x∥, so ∥φ∥≤∥y∥; and plugging in x=y gives φ(y)=∥y∥2, so ∥φ∥≥∣φ(y)∣/∥y∥=∥y∥. Together, ∥φ∥=∥y∥.