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Mean value theorem (Lagrange)

Statement

If f:[a,b]→Rf:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R} is continuous on [a,b][a,b] and differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), then there exists c∈(a,b)c\in(a,b) such that f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−af'(c) = \dfrac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}.

Why is it true?

On a car trip, at some instant your speedometer reading (instantaneous speed) must equal your average speed for the whole trip — you can't be strictly faster than average the entire way, nor strictly slower the entire way.

Proof sketch

Define the auxiliary function g(x)=f(x)−f(a)−f(b)−f(a)b−a(x−a)g(x) = f(x) - f(a) - \dfrac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}(x-a), which measures the vertical gap between ff and the secant line through (a,f(a))(a,f(a)) and (b,f(b))(b,f(b)). Then gg is continuous on [a,b][a,b], differentiable on (a,b)(a,b), and g(a)=g(b)=0g(a)=g(b)=0, so Rolle's theorem gives c∈(a,b)c\in(a,b) with g′(c)=0g'(c)=0, i.e. f′(c)=f(b)−f(a)b−af'(c) = \dfrac{f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}.

Stated by

Topics that use this theorem

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Step-by-step proofs

No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.

References

  1. Joseph-Louis Lagrange (1797). Théorie des fonctions analytiques
  2. James Stewart (2015). Calculus