If (x1,y1) is the fundamental solution of x2−dy2=1, then every solution in positive integers (x,y) equals (xn,yn) for some n≥1, where xn+ynd=(x1+y1d)n.
Why is it true?
It says the infinitely many solutions are not a mysterious scattered set but a completely predictable geometric-like sequence generated by repeatedly "multiplying" the smallest one — reducing an infinite search to finding just one number.
Proof sketch
First check (xn,yn) defined by xn+ynd=(x1+y1d)n is indeed a solution for every n: taking conjugates, xn−ynd=(x1−y1d)n, so xn2−dyn2=(xn+ynd)(xn−ynd)=[(x1+y1d)(x1−y1d)]n=(x12−dy12)n=1n=1.
Now suppose (x,y) is any positive integer solution not of this form; since xn→∞ as n→∞, there is a unique n with xn+ynd≤x+yd<xn+1+yn+1d=(xn+ynd)(x1+y1d).
Divide through by (xn+ynd), i.e. multiply by its inverse (xn−ynd) (valid since xn2−dyn2=1): set x′+y′d=(x+yd)(xn−ynd). Then 1≤x′+y′d<x1+y1d, and x′2−dy′2=(x2−dy2)(xn2−dyn2)=1⋅1=1, so (x′,y′) is also a solution of Pell's equation.
A short computation using x′+y′d≥1 and x′2−dy′2=1 shows x′≥1 and y′≥0 (a solution with x′+y′d≥1 but y′<0 would force x′>x1, contradicting x′+y′d<x1+y1d combined with the norm equation). If y′>0, then (x′,y′) is a positive solution with x′+y′d<x1+y1d, contradicting minimality of the fundamental solution. So y′=0, forcing x′=1, i.e. x+yd=xn+ynd, so (x,y)=(xn,yn) after all — contradicting our assumption.
Hence every positive solution is exactly some (xn,yn), proving the fundamental solution generates the entire solution set.