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TheoremProved

The binomial theorem

Statement

For every nonnegative integer nn and all numbers aa, bb: (a+b)n=∑k=0n(nk)an−kbk(a+b)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}a^{n-k}b^k

Why is it true?

Expanding (a+b)(a+b)⋯(a+b)(a+b)(a+b)\cdots(a+b) (nn factors) means picking either aa or bb from every factor and multiplying; the coefficient of an−kbka^{n-k}b^k is exactly the number of ways to pick bb from kk of the nn factors, which is (nk)\binom{n}{k}.

Proof sketch

We prove it by induction on nn. Base case n=1n=1: (a+b)1=a+b=(10)a+(11)b(a+b)^1=a+b=\binom{1}{0}a+\binom{1}{1}b, which matches the formula since (10)=(11)=1\binom{1}{0}=\binom{1}{1}=1.

Inductive step: assume the formula holds for some nn, so (a+b)n=∑k=0n(nk)an−kbk(a+b)^n=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}a^{n-k}b^k. Multiply both sides by (a+b)(a+b): (a+b)n+1=∑k=0n(nk)an+1−kbk+∑k=0n(nk)an−kbk+1(a+b)^{n+1}=\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}a^{n+1-k}b^k+\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}a^{n-k}b^{k+1}.

Reindexing the second sum with j=k+1j=k+1 and collecting the coefficient of an+1−jbja^{n+1-j}b^j from both sums gives (nj)+(nj−1)\binom{n}{j}+\binom{n}{j-1} for each jj from 00 to n+1n+1 (with the convention (n−1)=(nn+1)=0\binom{n}{-1}=\binom{n}{n+1}=0).

By Pascal's rule (nk)=(n−1k−1)+(n−1k)\binom{n}{k}=\binom{n-1}{k-1}+\binom{n-1}{k}, this sum equals (n+1j)\binom{n+1}{j}, so (a+b)n+1=∑j=0n+1(n+1j)an+1−jbj(a+b)^{n+1}=\sum_{j=0}^{n+1}\binom{n+1}{j}a^{n+1-j}b^j, completing the induction.

Topics that use this theorem

Step-by-step proofs

No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.