For every nonnegative integer n and all numbers a, b: (a+b)n=∑k=0n(kn)an−kbk
Why is it true?
Expanding (a+b)(a+b)⋯(a+b) (n factors) means picking either a or b from every factor and multiplying; the coefficient of an−kbk is exactly the number of ways to pick b from k of the n factors, which is (kn).
Proof sketch
We prove it by induction on n. Base case n=1: (a+b)1=a+b=(01)a+(11)b, which matches the formula since (01)=(11)=1.
Inductive step: assume the formula holds for some n, so (a+b)n=∑k=0n(kn)an−kbk. Multiply both sides by (a+b): (a+b)n+1=∑k=0n(kn)an+1−kbk+∑k=0n(kn)an−kbk+1.
Reindexing the second sum with j=k+1 and collecting the coefficient of an+1−jbj from both sums gives (jn)+(j−1n) for each j from 0 to n+1 (with the convention (−1n)=(n+1n)=0).
By Pascal's rule (kn)=(k−1n−1)+(kn−1), this sum equals (jn+1), so (a+b)n+1=∑j=0n+1(jn+1)an+1−jbj, completing the induction.