In simple linear regression, SST=SSR+SSE, so 0≤R2≤1; moreover R2 equals the square of the sample correlation coefficient r between x and y: R2=r2.
Why is it true?
The residuals from a least-squares fit are always uncorrelated with the fitted values, because the normal equations that define β^0,β^1 are precisely the conditions that force this. That orthogonality is exactly what makes the total variation split cleanly into an "explained" piece and a "leftover" piece with no cross-term.
Proof sketch
The two normal equations from the least-squares theorem above say ∑i=1nei=0 and ∑i=1nxiei=0, where ei=yi−y^i. Since y^i=β^0+β^1xi is a linear combination of 1 and xi, both normal equations combine to give ∑i=1neiy^i=β^0∑i=1nei+β^1∑i=1nxiei=0. Combined with ∑ei=0, this gives ∑i=1nei(y^i−yˉ)=∑eiy^i−yˉ∑ei=0.
Now expand SST=∑i=1n(yi−yˉ)2=∑i=1n((yi−y^i)+(y^i−yˉ))2=∑ei2+2∑ei(y^i−yˉ)+∑(y^i−yˉ)2. The cross term vanishes by the orthogonality just shown, leaving SST=SSE+SSR.
Since SSE=∑ei2≥0 and SSR=∑(y^i−yˉ)2≥0, dividing SST=SSR+SSE by SST>0 gives R2=SSR/SST∈[0,1].
Finally, y^i−yˉ=β^1(xi−xˉ) (since y^i=β^0+β^1xi and yˉ=β^0+β^1xˉ), so SSR=β^12Sxx. Substituting β^1=Sxy/Sxx gives SSR=Sxy2/Sxx, and since SST=Syy=∑(yi−yˉ)2, R2=SxxSyySxy2=(SxxSyySxy)2=r2, the square of the sample correlation coefficient.