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TheoremProved

Lifting The Exponent Lemma

Statement

Let pp be an odd prime, and let a,ba,b be integers with p∣a−bp \mid a-b and p∤ap \nmid a, p∤bp \nmid b. Then for every positive integer nn: vp(an−bn)=vp(a−b)+vp(n)v_p(a^n - b^n) = v_p(a-b) + v_p(n).

Why is it true?

LTE turns a hard question about divisibility of a difference of high powers into simple arithmetic on valuations, and is one of the fastest ways to solve olympiad problems asking for the largest power of a prime dividing an expression like an−bna^n-b^n or to prove such an expression is never (or always) divisible by some prime power.

Proof sketch

**Step 1: Reduce to the case n=pn=p via multiplicativity.** Write n=pvp(n)⋅mn = p^{v_p(n)} \cdot m with p∤mp \nmid m. Repeated application of the n=pn=p case (proved below) to am,bma^m, b^m in place of a,ba,b shows vp(an−bn)=vp((am)pvp(n)−(bm)pvp(n))=vp(am−bm)+vp(n)v_p(a^n-b^n) = v_p((a^m)^{p^{v_p(n)}} - (b^m)^{p^{v_p(n)}}) = v_p(a^m-b^m) + v_p(n), so it suffices to prove vp(am−bm)=vp(a−b)v_p(a^m - b^m) = v_p(a-b) whenever p∤mp \nmid m, and to prove the base step vp(ap−bp)=vp(a−b)+1v_p(a^p-b^p) = v_p(a-b)+1.

Step 2: Prove the base step using the factorization. Factor ap−bp=(a−b)(ap−1+ap−2b+⋯+bp−1)a^p - b^p = (a-b)(a^{p-1}+a^{p-2}b+\cdots+b^{p-1}). We must show the second factor S=∑j=0p−1ap−1−jbjS = \sum_{j=0}^{p-1} a^{p-1-j}b^j has vp(S)=1v_p(S) = 1.

**Step 3: Show p∣Sp \mid S.** Since p∣a−bp \mid a-b, we have a≡b(modp)a \equiv b \pmod p, so each term ap−1−jbj≡bp−1−jbj=bp−1(modp)a^{p-1-j}b^j \equiv b^{p-1-j}b^j = b^{p-1} \pmod p. Summing all pp terms, S≡p⋅bp−1≡0(modp)S \equiv p\cdot b^{p-1} \equiv 0 \pmod p (using p∤bp \nmid b), so p∣Sp \mid S.

**Step 4: Show p2∤Sp^2 \nmid S.** Write a=b+pta = b + pt for integer tt (possible since p∣a−bp\mid a-b). Expand each term ap−1−jbj=(b+pt)p−1−jbj≡bp−1−jbj+(p−1−j)pt bp−2−jbj(modp2)a^{p-1-j}b^j = (b+pt)^{p-1-j}b^j \equiv b^{p-1-j}b^j + (p-1-j)pt\, b^{p-2-j}b^j \pmod{p^2} (binomial expansion, dropping terms with p2p^2 or higher). Summing over j=0,…,p−1j=0,\dots,p-1: the leading terms sum to p bp−1p\,b^{p-1} as before, and the correction terms sum to pt bp−2∑j=0p−1(p−1−j)=pt bp−2⋅p(p−1)2pt\,b^{p-2}\sum_{j=0}^{p-1}(p-1-j) = pt\,b^{p-2}\cdot\frac{p(p-1)}{2}, which is divisible by p2p^2 (since pp is odd, p−12\frac{p-1}{2} is an integer, so this correction is p2⋅(integer)p^2\cdot(\text{integer}), hence ≡0(modp2)\equiv 0 \pmod{p^2}). So S≡p bp−1(modp2)S \equiv p\,b^{p-1} \pmod{p^2}, and since p∤bp \nmid b, p bp−1p\,b^{p-1} is divisible by pp but not p2p^2, giving vp(S)=1v_p(S)=1.

Step 5: Combine. From Steps 2–4, vp(ap−bp)=vp(a−b)+vp(S)=vp(a−b)+1v_p(a^p-b^p) = v_p(a-b) + v_p(S) = v_p(a-b)+1. Combined with the reduction in Step 1 (and the fact vp(am−bm)=vp(a−b)v_p(a^m-b^m)=v_p(a-b) when p∤mp\nmid m, provable the same way since then S≡m bm−1≢0(modp)S \equiv m\,b^{m-1} \not\equiv 0 \pmod p), induction on vp(n)v_p(n) gives vp(an−bn)=vp(a−b)+vp(n)v_p(a^n-b^n) = v_p(a-b)+v_p(n) for all positive integers nn.

Topics that use this theorem

Step-by-step proofs

No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.

References

  1. Andrew Granville, Thomas J. Tucker (2002). It's As Easy As abc
  2. Titu Andreescu, Dorin Andrica, Zuming Feng (2007). 104 Number Theory Problems: From the Training of the USA IMO Team
  3. Titu Andreescu, Dorin Andrica, Ion Cucurezeanu (2010). An Introduction to Diophantine Equations: A Problem-Based Approach