Let p be an odd prime, and let a,b be integers with p∣a−b and p∤a, p∤b. Then for every positive integer n: vp(an−bn)=vp(a−b)+vp(n).
Why is it true?
LTE turns a hard question about divisibility of a difference of high powers into simple arithmetic on valuations, and is one of the fastest ways to solve olympiad problems asking for the largest power of a prime dividing an expression like an−bn or to prove such an expression is never (or always) divisible by some prime power.
Proof sketch
**Step 1: Reduce to the case n=p via multiplicativity.** Write n=pvp(n)⋅m with p∤m. Repeated application of the n=p case (proved below) to am,bm in place of a,b shows vp(an−bn)=vp((am)pvp(n)−(bm)pvp(n))=vp(am−bm)+vp(n), so it suffices to prove vp(am−bm)=vp(a−b) whenever p∤m, and to prove the base step vp(ap−bp)=vp(a−b)+1.
Step 2: Prove the base step using the factorization. Factor ap−bp=(a−b)(ap−1+ap−2b+⋯+bp−1). We must show the second factor S=∑j=0p−1ap−1−jbj has vp(S)=1.
**Step 3: Show p∣S.** Since p∣a−b, we have a≡b(modp), so each term ap−1−jbj≡bp−1−jbj=bp−1(modp). Summing all p terms, S≡p⋅bp−1≡0(modp) (using p∤b), so p∣S.
**Step 4: Show p2∤S.** Write a=b+pt for integer t (possible since p∣a−b). Expand each term ap−1−jbj=(b+pt)p−1−jbj≡bp−1−jbj+(p−1−j)ptbp−2−jbj(modp2) (binomial expansion, dropping terms with p2 or higher). Summing over j=0,…,p−1: the leading terms sum to pbp−1 as before, and the correction terms sum to ptbp−2∑j=0p−1(p−1−j)=ptbp−2⋅2p(p−1), which is divisible by p2 (since p is odd, 2p−1 is an integer, so this correction is p2⋅(integer), hence ≡0(modp2)). So S≡pbp−1(modp2), and since p∤b, pbp−1 is divisible by p but not p2, giving vp(S)=1.
Step 5: Combine. From Steps 2–4, vp(ap−bp)=vp(a−b)+vp(S)=vp(a−b)+1. Combined with the reduction in Step 1 (and the fact vp(am−bm)=vp(a−b) when p∤m, provable the same way since then S≡mbm−1≡0(modp)), induction on vp(n) gives vp(an−bn)=vp(a−b)+vp(n) for all positive integers n.