Every finite integral domain is a field
Statement
If is a finite integral domain, then every nonzero element of has a multiplicative inverse, so is a field.
Why is it true?
On a finite set, a map that never sends two different inputs to the same output is forced by the pigeonhole principle to hit every possible output — including .
Proof sketch
Let be any nonzero element, and consider the left-multiplication map defined by .
We first show is injective. Suppose , so , i.e. . Since is an integral domain and , there are no zero divisors, which forces and hence .
Because is a finite set, any injective map is automatically surjective (by the pigeonhole principle: ). In particular, the multiplicative identity must lie in the image of , so there exists with . Thus , and since was arbitrary, is a field.
Topics that use this theorem
Step-by-step proofs
No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.
References
- David S. Dummit, Richard M. Foote (2004). Abstract Algebra (3rd ed.)
- Michael F. Atiyah, Ian G. Macdonald (1969). Introduction to Commutative Algebra