MathLabs
TheoremProved

Every finite integral domain is a field

Statement

If DD is a finite integral domain, then every nonzero element of DD has a multiplicative inverse, so DD is a field.

Why is it true?

On a finite set, a map that never sends two different inputs to the same output is forced by the pigeonhole principle to hit every possible output — including 11.

Proof sketch

Let a∈Da \in D be any nonzero element, and consider the left-multiplication map La:D→DL_a : D \to D defined by La(x)=axL_a(x) = ax.

We first show LaL_a is injective. Suppose La(x)=La(y)L_a(x) = L_a(y), so ax=ayax = ay, i.e. a(x−y)=0a(x - y) = 0. Since DD is an integral domain and a≠0a \neq 0, there are no zero divisors, which forces x−y=0x - y = 0 and hence x=yx = y.

Because DD is a finite set, any injective map D→DD \to D is automatically surjective (by the pigeonhole principle: ∣La(D)∣=∣D∣|L_a(D)| = |D|). In particular, the multiplicative identity 1∈D1 \in D must lie in the image of LaL_a, so there exists b∈Db \in D with La(b)=ab=1L_a(b) = ab = 1. Thus b=a−1b = a^{-1}, and since a≠0a \neq 0 was arbitrary, DD is a field.

Topics that use this theorem

Step-by-step proofs

No step-by-step proof yet for this theorem.

References

  1. David S. Dummit, Richard M. Foote (2004). Abstract Algebra (3rd ed.)
  2. Michael F. Atiyah, Ian G. Macdonald (1969). Introduction to Commutative Algebra