Math Labs

Worked solution: Lindemann's transcendence proof of π\pi settles squaring the circle (1882)

Step 1 of 6: The task: build a square with the same area as a circle
In plain words

Give a circle of radius 11; its area is π\pi. 'Squaring the circle' means using only straightedge and compass to build a square with that exact same area — which means building a square whose side has length π\sqrt{\pi}, since a square of side ss has area s2s^2.

Greek geometers tried this for centuries with clever partial tricks (curves like the quadratrix of Hippias could do it, but those aren't straightedge-and-compass tools). The question sat unresolved for over two thousand years: is π\sqrt{\pi} actually one of the numbers a compass can reach?

Area=πr2=π  ⟹  side of equal square=π\text{Area} = \pi r^2 = \pi \implies \text{side of equal square} = \sqrt{\pi}
Detailed analysis

The classical problem, attested since at least the 5th century BCE (Anaxagoras is said to have worked on it in prison), asks for a straightedge-and-compass construction of a square with the same area as a given circle. Normalizing the radius to 11, the circle has area π\pi, so the required square has side ss with s2=πs^2 = \pi, i.e. s=πs = \sqrt{\pi}. The geometric task is thereby reduced to producing one segment of length π\sqrt{\pi} from a unit segment.

Wantzel's 1837 theorem converts 'producible segment' into algebra: every constructible length lies at the top of a tower of quadratic extensions of Q\mathbb{Q}, so it is algebraic over Q\mathbb{Q} — a root of some nonzero rational polynomial — and its degree is a power of 22. Hence squaring the circle is possible only if π\sqrt{\pi} is algebraic. Since the algebraic numbers form a field closed under polynomial operations, π\sqrt{\pi} is algebraic if and only if its square π\pi is algebraic: if α\alpha satisfies P(x)=0P(x) = 0, then α2\alpha^2 is algebraic because Q(α2)⊆Q(α)\mathbb{Q}(\alpha^2) \subseteq \mathbb{Q}(\alpha) is a finite extension, and conversely π\sqrt{\pi} would satisfy Q(x2)=0Q(x^2)=0 if π\pi satisfied Q(x)=0Q(x)=0.

So everything reduces to a question about one real number: is π\pi algebraic, or is it transcendental — satisfying no polynomial equation with rational coefficients at all? Legendre had conjectured irrationality of π2\pi^2 in the 1790s, and Lambert had proved π\pi irrational in 1761, but transcendence is far stronger: it must rule out polynomials of every degree simultaneously. Ferdinand von Lindemann settled it in 1882, extending the method Charles Hermite had used nine years earlier on ee.

Terms in this step
Algebraic number
A number that is a root of some nonzero polynomial with rational (equivalently, integer) coefficients — for instance 2\sqrt{2}, a root of x2−2x^2-2.
Transcendental number
A real or complex number that is not algebraic — it satisfies no polynomial equation with rational coefficients at all, however large the degree.
Knowledge used in this step